Post by hazellend on Jun 1, 2016 20:15:26 GMT
If a 50% leveraged property is available at 10% discount does that mean the actual discount is 5% to the total value of the property?
I.e if the shares are bought at 10% discount and the property was sold in several years at the exact same market value in a 50% leveraged property what would the profit % be?
I.e if the shares are bought at 10% discount and the property was sold in several years at the exact same market value in a 50% leveraged property what would the profit % be?
