duck
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Post by duck on Oct 17, 2016 8:12:30 GMT
I largely agree. I was not suggesting that FS did away with the rule - it would be better if SS introduced something similar. I was just pointing out the anomaly. But although it also alleviates the tax problem it is IMO an exaggeration to say "serious abuse of the tax system is to a great extent ruled out". Appreciate you were not suggesting the 30 day limit was removed but thought I would get my points in before a campaign to remove it stated .... As for abuse of the tax system perhaps your mind is not as devious as mine ..... which is good
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mikes1531
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Post by mikes1531 on Oct 17, 2016 13:14:26 GMT
As for the 30 days on FS I can instantly see two reasons why I think it should stay 1. It 'protects' less well informed investors than those who inhabit this board ..... it would be easy (almost inevitable for a lot of tax payers) to run up losses when tax is taken into account if you bought extensively on the aftermarket and there was no 30 day period. 2. With 30 days in place, serious abuse of the tax system is to a great extent ruled out. Take the 30 day limit away from FS and I feel that the platform would take a lot of grief, they can't assume that all investors are 'sophisticated' and understand just what risk they are taking on. duck: Perhaps I'm missing something, but I really don't see anything magic about the 30-day point. With respect to your two reasons... 1. The discount should cover the taxes the buyer has to pay. (Unless they're paying at the higher rate, at which point they probably shouldn't be buying any part on the SM that's more than a relatively few days old.) In order to be even close to the front of the 'parts for sale' queue (when ordered by Expected Return), the discount required these days seems to be at least 1.5%. So I don't see any significant difference between buying a part with 140 days' worth of of accrued interest and one with 170 days' worth, as long as the discount grows appropriately during that time. 2. If people in the higher rate band are selling their parts to people in lower bands, it would seem that what appears to be a loophole built into the tax law is being exploited, but what difference does it make whether it's done after holding parts for 170 days compared to 140 days. If the discounts offered are enough to cover the tax obligations transferred to buyers, I don't see why it shouldn't be allowed up to the last minute -- even on the day that the announcement is made that the loan will be renewed tomorrow.
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duck
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Post by duck on Oct 17, 2016 14:09:56 GMT
duck : Perhaps I'm missing something, but I really don't see anything magic about the 30-day point. With respect to your two reasons... 1. The discount should cover the taxes the buyer has to pay. (Unless they're paying at the higher rate, at which point they probably shouldn't be buying any part on the SM that's more than a relatively few days old.) In order to be even close to the front of the 'parts for sale' queue (when ordered by Expected Return), the discount required these days seems to be at least 1.5%. So I don't see any significant difference between buying a part with 140 days' worth of of accrued interest and one with 170 days' worth, as long as the discount grows appropriately during that time. 2. If people in the higher rate band are selling their parts to people in lower bands, it would seem that what appears to be a loophole built into the tax law is being exploited, but what difference does it make whether it's done after holding parts for 170 days compared to 140 days. If the discounts offered are enough to cover the tax obligations transferred to buyers, I don't see why it shouldn't be allowed up to the last minute -- even on the day that the announcement is made that the loan will be renewed tomorrow. As I said initially I view the 30 day limit as providing some safeguard to people who do not understand the tax implications (and do not read this forum) ... you are right mikes1531 the discount should cover the tax implications for basic rate payers and higher rate tax payers should be very aware of what they are doing, but we understand the system. Others may see a discount as a 'bargain' only to discover the error of their ways at a later date resulting in bad press for FS. With the 30 days in place it would be unusual for an actual loss (after tax) to show up but you do need to understand the difference between -1% and -0.5% with respect to the days held. Basically the 30 days provides a bit of a buffer and if the buffer is removed the uninformed have further potential to return a loss. With the current 30 days some tax should be paid by the purchaser even if the original owner sheds the tax liability. If a loan part was sold 1 day before it redeemed the tax due by anybody would be almost zero. If you add in a friendly non tax payer account you could (if so minded) completely de-risk and pay no tax. There would also be no need to avoid those very risky loans that we like to avoid. Taking this train of thought one step further and taking in the inevitable defaults, artificially generating a loss is not out of the question which can of course be offset against tax. Then of course there are business accounts and selling at a premium ..... I hope that explains enough my train of thought and I have to say I do not advocate thinking/acting along the lines of what I have written in the previous paragraph! With the 30 days in place the incentive to go down that route is IMHO kept at bay even if it is not totally eliminated.
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mikes1531
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Post by mikes1531 on Oct 17, 2016 18:41:57 GMT
If a loan part was sold 1 day before it redeemed the tax due by anybody would be almost zero. Only if the buyer is a company or a non-taxpayer. If you add in a friendly non tax payer account you could (if so minded) completely de-risk and pay no tax. There would also be no need to avoid those very risky loans that we like to avoid. If, by a 'friendly' account, you mean an account you have influence or control over, then all you've done is pass the risk from the selling account to the buying one, so you haven't really de-risked. In order to de-risk you need a completely unrelated buyer, and I doubt there are too many people willing to take on loans the day before they mature. (It's hard enough trying to sell parts at a discount with 30 days to go -- I know because I've tried.) And even if there were a few non-taxpayers willing to buy, having to report six months' worth of interest after having invested for a very few days would take them out of the realm of being a non-taxpayer in a hurry. ISTM that you'd need to find companies who would buy those short-dated parts, and I'd expect whoever is making the buying decisions for the company to realise what they're getting into, so again I wouldn't expect to find many willing to buy. Taking this train of thought one step further and taking in the inevitable defaults, artificially generating a loss is not out of the question which can of course be offset against tax. Buying a part of a loan that happens to turn into a default and a loss very quickly certainly would generate a loss in a hurry. But I fail to see how that's a benefit to the buyer. Yes, they'll be able to reduce the tax they owe. But the tax saved will not be as much as the loss they've actually suffered, so the net result is that they're out of pocket. Then of course there are business accounts and selling at a premium ..... Considering all the discounted parts being offered for sale, I'd be very surprised if any parts offered at a premium actually find buyers.
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duck
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Post by duck on Oct 17, 2016 19:35:28 GMT
I don't disagree with what you have written mikes1531 but what I was intimating was that you could artificially increase the earnings of one account to the detriment of another over which you have control. As you have identified selling to a non tax payer or Company results in no tax payment which is in my eyes a potential level of playing the game too far. Just giving one example, if you were to sell loan parts at a premium to a company the money could exit the Company at a lower cost than paying CT (and possibly dividend tax) with the Company potentially being able to claim loss relief to offset some of the loss it has made on the transaction. Yes the Company is the looser but the individual gains a larger amount. This is obviously a very murky area that I'm not at all comfortable typing about, I came across it when I missed out a '-' sign on my spreadsheet that calculates buying and selling margins and noticed that the section of the spreadsheet that deals with my Company account produced some 'interesting' figures with respect to taxation.
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Neil_P2PBlog
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Post by Neil_P2PBlog on Oct 17, 2016 20:57:45 GMT
duck - that is a very interesting situation you stumbled upon..the FCA will have a hard time trying to tidy up all these loopholes! Not just FS, but any platform that allows the sale of individually identified loan parts at a premium.
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stevio
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Post by stevio on Oct 17, 2016 21:24:46 GMT
I don't disagree with what you have written mikes1531 but what I was intimating was that you could artificially increase the earnings of one account to the detriment of another over which you have control. As you have identified selling to a non tax payer or Company results in no tax payment which is in my eyes a potential level of playing the game too far. Just giving one example, if you were to sell loan parts at a premium to a company the money could exit the Company at a lower cost than paying CT (and possibly dividend tax) with the Company potentially being able to claim loss relief to offset some of the loss it has made on the transaction. Yes the Company is the looser but the individual gains a larger amount. This is obviously a very murky area that I'm not at all comfortable typing about, I came across it when I missed out a '-' sign on my spreadsheet that calculates buying and selling margins and noticed that the section of the spreadsheet that deals with my Company account produced some 'interesting' figures with respect to taxation. With the biggest premium being 4% (often 3% in practise as need min % gain remaining), then £4 on every £100 sold, would take quite a massive difference in business and personal funds £104k would only release £4k 30%+ taxable returns buying from 3rd party on SM available to companies might be more appealing
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duck
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Post by duck on Oct 18, 2016 4:21:20 GMT
duck - that is a very interesting situation you stumbled upon..the FCA will have a hard time trying to tidy up all these loopholes! Not just FS, but any platform that allows the sale of individually identified loan parts at a premium. That is where I have been heading but didn't want to write (due to issues it could give platforms wrt the FCA). It is the identification of individual loan parts that allows the aftermarket to be exploited. Whilst moving money between husband and wife shouldn't be an issue (good tax planning) it does arise when you add in a connected 'relative' or Company. Yes stevio , looked at in isolation the amounts are small but if for instance you add in an individual who should be paying higher rate tax he can 'sell off' and keep at basic rate whilst pocketing the gain in capital. The Company doesn't turn in a profit on the deal so no CT is due and capital could have left the Company to the individual without paying the 7.5% dividend tax. There are other permutations but I won't go any further .....
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sqh
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Post by sqh on Oct 18, 2016 17:29:37 GMT
It is a bizarre anomaly that SS allow sales of loans in default but do not allow discounts or premiums whilst FS do allow variable pricing but not on loans within 30 days of term. Common sense would say that discounts are a prerequisite to allow sales of loans which are in any way not in good order. Reducing the time until renewal to <30 days would have a dramatic effect on the effective buyer rate. For example, 3 days ago loan 1649013119 was available at 2% discount on the SM. The loan renewal is now happening tomorrow. If my calculations are correct any lender who bought with 31 days left, has got an effective rate of approx. 182.5%. Not bad.
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littleoldlady
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Post by littleoldlady on Oct 18, 2016 17:44:56 GMT
It is a bizarre anomaly that SS allow sales of loans in default but do not allow discounts or premiums whilst FS do allow variable pricing but not on loans within 30 days of term. Common sense would say that discounts are a prerequisite to allow sales of loans which are in any way not in good order. Reducing the time until renewal to <30 days would have a dramatic effect on the effective buyer rate. For example, 3 days ago loan 1649013119 was available at 2% discount on the SM. The loan renewal is now happening tomorrow. If my calculations are correct any lender who bought with 31 days left, has got an effective rate of approx. 182.5%. Not bad. Sorry to be slow. Could you elucidate for a little old lady?
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Post by moneymagnet on Oct 18, 2016 18:04:33 GMT
Getting a total of 2% (the discount on the SM for the buyer) interest in 4 days, because the borrower paid back early, equals an annual rate of 182.5%. Not bad at all!
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mikes1531
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Post by mikes1531 on Oct 18, 2016 18:45:24 GMT
Getting a total of 2% (the discount on the SM for the buyer) interest in 4 days, because the borrower paid back early, equals an annual rate of 182.5%. Not bad at all! The above calculation is very close to being correct -- it doesn't include the interest earned during the four days -- but it presumes that when the loan is put up for renewal tomorrow it is fully funded that same day. While that's not impossible, considering how slowly FS loans have been filling lately, ISTM that it's more likely that it will take a bit longer before the parts in the original loans actually are repaid. So I don't expect the return actually will be 182.5% -- but it'll still be very nice!
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stevio
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Post by stevio on Oct 18, 2016 19:01:49 GMT
Also that's a annual return if you could continue to repeat it constantly for a year, ie you haven't nearly doubled your money, as might sound
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mikes1531
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Post by mikes1531 on Oct 18, 2016 19:06:04 GMT
Yes stevio , looked at in isolation the amounts are small but if for instance you add in an individual who should be paying higher rate tax he can 'sell off' and keep at basic rate whilst pocketing the gain in capital. The Company doesn't turn in a profit on the deal so no CT is due and capital could have left the Company to the individual without paying the 7.5% dividend tax. duck: I expect I'm being a bit thick here, but I need a further explanation. Firstly, ISTM that the higher-rate individual who sells a loan part to their company avoids paying any tax on their interest earned up to the date of the sale, and pockets the gain in capital tax-free. So I don't understand the mention of 'basic rate' in your first sentence I've quoted above. Secondly, I don't see how any capital has left the company. The Company has bought the loan part for the capital amount plus the accrued interest. Some time later, the loan will be repaid -- hopefully -- and the company will receive back that same capital amount plus the accrued interest. Any interest accrued between the date of sale and the repayment date will be earnings to the company, which is reasonable because the company's money has been invested in the part for that period. But how has any capital left the company in the direction of the individual? What am I missing?
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mikes1531
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Post by mikes1531 on Oct 18, 2016 19:09:00 GMT
Also that's a annual return if you could continue to repeat it constantly for a year, ie you haven't nearly doubled your money, as might sound stevio: Actually, all it takes to double your money in a year is a 100% rate of return. A 182.5% return for a whole year would nearly triple your money.
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