justme
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Post by justme on Jan 16, 2018 20:27:27 GMT
what is reported as "losses" in earning summary? Are those both defaulted and downgraded loans? I am trying to figure out the result of the first year on FC and want to do it by finding out how much money I would get now if I was to liquidate the lot. Obviously I would not be able to sell defaulted and downgraded loans. I have counted how much money I have in those by looking at "loan comments" but if I deduct this number from " funding circle total" would it result in deducting it twice as losses already been deducted from "total" ? Hope the question makes sense. Or if anyone could tell me other way to find total of my saleable loans? Thank you very much.
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loadsahope
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Post by loadsahope on Jan 16, 2018 20:48:34 GMT
Click 'Sell'. It tells you how much you can realise (almost) immediately. You can always cancel out. I do this fairly often, looking forward to the day when the number it tells me is more than what went in. Tho to be fair I haven't been with FC that long.
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pickles
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Post by pickles on Jan 16, 2018 20:58:13 GMT
This is the way I understand it, I'm sure someone will quickly correct anything I'm wrong about:
Your Portfolio Total should equal the initial investment + net earnings. It should also equal the total invested + cash in hand. Sometimes it doesn't exactly tally while the funding circle engines are doing their adding up.
Net earnings will be gross earnings minus fees and losses.
An outstanding loan part *only* goes into losses when it defaults. Downgraded loans are still in your portfolio total but not sellable.
There are a couple of nuances. Adding up your defaulted loans won't match the losses figure, because any recoveries are subtracted from that (and thus added to your net earnings) but they are *not* subtracted from the figure in the loan comments. Also, if you sell your loans the buyer will pay the outstanding interest up to the sale and fees will be subtracted.
Your best guess for how much you can take out would be to take the portfolio total, subtract the outstanding on the downgraded but not defaulted loans and add 90% of the accrued interest figure. Then subtract the outstanding on all loans with only 1 payment left as they can't be sold, but assume that most of them will be paid within less than two months, apart from any that overrun or default.
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justme
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Post by justme on Jan 16, 2018 21:48:24 GMT
both superb answers, lots of thanks
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Post by lonerifle on Jan 19, 2018 0:24:33 GMT
FCViz (see the relevant thread) features a waterfall graph, to help visualise this:  |
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