MarkT
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Post by MarkT on May 27, 2016 20:31:14 GMT
That's good to know. Thanks.
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Post by earthbound on May 27, 2016 20:51:04 GMT
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moist
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Post by moist on May 27, 2016 20:52:13 GMT
apologies CD, live and learn.
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MarkT
Member of DD Central
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Post by MarkT on May 27, 2016 21:04:48 GMT
Thanks for this too. Three months to sort out the default and repay the lenders seems pretty good to me.
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cooling_dude
Bye Bye's for the PPI
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Post by cooling_dude on May 27, 2016 21:14:37 GMT
Thanks for this too. Three months to sort out the default and repay the lenders seems pretty good to me. Yes, but PBL07 it was only a tiddler (£168,000), so it will be interesting to see how this £1,700,000 defaulted loan will be handled... Of course there is always the Provision Fund, which should cover any losses.
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MarkT
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Post by MarkT on May 27, 2016 21:20:20 GMT
Thanks for this too. Three months to sort out the default and repay the lenders seems pretty good to me. Yes, but PBL07 it was only a tiddler (£168,000), so it will be interesting to see how this £1,700,000 defaulted loan will be handled... Of course there is always the Provision Fund, which should cover any losses. Indeed. Almost exactly an order of magnitude difference. I will watch with interest.
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littleoldlady
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Running down all platforms due to age
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Post by littleoldlady on May 27, 2016 21:51:39 GMT
Of course there is always the Provision Fund, which should cover any losses. Is the PF relevant for a loan on the old T&C? We lent to Lendy not the end borrower so the default is their concern not ours. Lendy has to pay us back or default themselves ie liquidate the platform. Or am I missing something?
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ben
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Post by ben on May 27, 2016 21:58:25 GMT
I would guess the provision fund was orginally set up to pay for any defaults that Lendy had, I believe read somewhere that 2% of each loan goes into the fund to be used in case of any defaults.
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Post by earthbound on May 27, 2016 22:04:29 GMT
I would guess the provision fund was orginally set up to pay for any defaults that Lendy had, I believe read somewhere that 2% of each loan goes into the fund to be used in case of any defaults. ben Afaiu the provision fund can be used on any loan, solely at the discretion of SS , the PF will always be 2% min of the SS loan book. not sure if that means 2% of every loan, but you may be right their.
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guff
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Post by guff on May 27, 2016 22:09:32 GMT
Just sold all mine and upped my prefunding for tomorrow's two. No matter the T&Cs I prefer a photo to a big red 'Loan in Default' banner on my loan list!! Put my £50 up for sale - more in hope than expectation as there was already £8K+ for sale - and very surprised that it's gone in 20 minutes. Now over £9K up for sale. Same here - I put my £500 up when there was £11½k for sale.... just looked in and it's gone and there is £34k for sale.
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Post by earthbound on May 27, 2016 22:21:56 GMT
This default has definitely dragged the SM quality down, nothing but short dated loans available, with the odd bits on better stuff, maybe spooked a few. edit 23.59 approaching, i wonder what will happen after midnight.
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jimbob
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Post by jimbob on May 28, 2016 1:02:31 GMT
Was in for 50 quid earlier. Now all sold and ready for Mulguy tomorro.
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mikes1531
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Post by mikes1531 on May 28, 2016 2:56:01 GMT
Of course there is always the Provision Fund, which should cover any losses. In reading the description of how the PF works, all I see are references to paying out if there are losses of capital. I see nothing mentioning the PF might also cover accrued interest. Someone earlier was speculating that SS/Lendy might be charging penalties or higher interest on defaulted loans. Do we have any evidence of such clauses in the standard loan agreement? (Do I remember correctly that someone asked for a copy of a loan agreement and was given one? If so, what did it say about this?) If a borrower isn't subject to such penalties for non-payment, what incentive do they have to cover the accruing interest in a situation such as PBL020? If the sale proceeds are sufficient to pay all accrued interest, then any accrued interest simply would reduce the amount left for the borrower. If the borrower had paid it as it was accruing, there'd be less to subtract from the proceeds and the borrower would effectively get what they paid out back again when the sale completes. If the sale proceeds aren't enough to cover all accrued interest, however, then the borrower won't get anything out of the proceeds, so having paid any of the interest as it accrued would have been throwing money away. ISTM that in those circumstances, the question whether to make interest payments is a no-brainer --DON'T!
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Post by gaspilot on May 28, 2016 6:52:53 GMT
Just for clarification - this loan is under the old T's and C's isn't it? So, with that in mind, the risk here is more of platform failure rather than the actual loss on the loan itself? Am I understanding that correctly?
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ben
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Post by ben on May 28, 2016 8:20:29 GMT
Just for clarification - this loan is under the old T's and C's isn't it? So, with that in mind, the risk here is more of platform failure rather than the actual loss on the loan itself? Am I understanding that correctly? In this case that is the main risk, although it is still unclear if they will pay the interest or not. Which the first loans you were lending to SS (although through a different name) rather then the indivuduals. They have previously stated if these go bad they will repay the difference between what they get for the asset and what is invested. What is unclear is about the interest. Is if the asset does not make enough to cover repayments and interest will SS pay the interest or just pay back to initial investment.
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