blender
Member of DD Central
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Post by blender on Feb 14, 2014 22:57:11 GMT
It would seem to me that this withholding was exceptional and related to a particular problem with this borrower. Consider the problems of FC systems and the calculation and distribution of interest payments. On the old loan the existing lenders get interest paid up until the next due repayment, and that is in the T&Cs and cannot be fiddled with. So it is difficult for FC to demand repayment while interest is being paid on the money. But also the interest payments on the new loan are fixed and monthly and start accumulating as soon as the borrower accepts the loan - all the new lenders expect full interest from the start date and if some part of the money is withheld by FC it would not be easy to pay some lenders and not others (which ones?) nor to split the whole loan into two tranches and pay lenders at one rate to start with and another rate when the full amount was given. And what happens at the end of the loan? I am pretty sure that FC's system and reconciliations could not cope with this, unless the money was withheld but the borrower was expected to pay the full interest on it. Nor would FC wish to pay the interest. I remember in a past life that one of the biggest problems of having a dynamic sales and marketing department was that they would invent super new promotional schemes and go ahead with them without checking that the billing system could actually bill the customers for it, resulting in manual billing. The solution was to require an IT sign off for any new promotional deal, which rather limited things. I reckon that FC gets into similar problems.
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Post by bracknellboy on Feb 15, 2014 8:57:50 GMT
Not convinced it needs to be particularly complicated:
1. the interest owing from the first loan from the point of last repayment to the final commitment under Ts and Cs is known, working on a basis of a nominal preferred payback date coinciding with drawdown of the second loan. 2. the capital remaining is known.
The Ts and Cs of the second loan state that the interest owing on the first loan and the capital will be witheld and used to pay off the liabilities on the first loan. None of this messes with the borrowers liabilities on the second loan which are still theirs to sort out. It also doesn't seem to terribly mess with the back end systems: its just as if any other borrower had sent in a lump sum to pay off.
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Post by GSV3MIaC on Feb 15, 2014 9:20:30 GMT
Exactly .. and FC regularly have trouble processing those too. I could quote several examples, but you've probably seen them already yourself.
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Post by bracknellboy on Feb 15, 2014 9:48:02 GMT
Exactly .. and FC regularly have trouble processing those too. I could quote several examples, but you've probably seen them already yourself. Ahh. Fair point. Simple, but still too complicated then.
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Post by GSV3MIaC on Feb 16, 2014 21:48:54 GMT
Just to note for those who don't have access to the FC comments on 'W**king Capitale' (buyer not identifiable from that, dear moderators), the whole story is on the P2p blog at blog.p2pmoney.co.uk/For once I have to say it seems to be that FC have done the right / honourable thing, after cocking it up rather badly initially.
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