jm72
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Post by jm72 on Feb 13, 2014 18:07:22 GMT
Loan 4573 has been downrated from A+ (as listed) to A due to the company deciding not to repay loan 1141. The listing included the statement that Loan 1141 would be repaid - is this a case of Fraudulent listing (no intention of repaying the existing loan, but wanting a lower interest rate) or another FC F**k up. I've written asking for my money back on this one!
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Post by phlitb on Feb 13, 2014 19:32:52 GMT
This is FC riding roughshod over investors at their worst. I'm left with an investment I would never have made at a rate at which won't sell for par. And even if it did, how can it be right that I should lose out, the borrower gets off scot-free and FC profit from this situation? I've also written to FC requesting a full refund.
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oldgrumpy
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Post by oldgrumpy on Feb 13, 2014 19:36:36 GMT
Don't recognise the number but I must have decided not to bid for some reason.
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Post by bracknellboy on Feb 13, 2014 19:59:31 GMT
It was at least 12 months ago, if not 18, that I first emailed FC regarding a loan being taken out on the premise that a prior load would be paid off. In that case the original loan was left in limbo for a considerable time. I was frankly astonished that FC released the full value of the first loan: I had expected that they would clear the old loan and then release the balance. To do otherwise meant that a) lenders on the first who also lent on the second were left with a period of higher exposure than they intended b) until the balance was cleared the borrower was in effect in a different financial liability and interest payment scenario than lenders had reason to believe at the time of the second loan and c) left open the distinct possibility that the borrower subsequently stuck 2 fingers up and kept both. At the time I recall they said that they normally would have done as I thought and this case was an error, but the situation has arisen multiple times since and is proven to be the norm. [EDIT: I should add I cannot find email confirmation of such statement from FC]. I am not surprised that the risk of c) has eventually crystallised. And of course all of the above then become the reasons for a credit downgrade.
Yes, in this case FC is as culpable as the borrower in my opinion. If I was in on it I too would be demanding my money back. The term 'misrepresentation' should not be used lightly in such situations, but if what has been said is true then the borrower has misrepresented and while FC are not complicit in that, they are complicit in the general sense of having enabled an utterly predictable (as in would one day happen) situation to occur when it was entirely within its powers to prevent it. How on earth they allow loans to be listed with statements that original loan will be paid off without ensuring that has to be the case I do not understand.
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jm72
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Post by jm72 on Feb 13, 2014 20:27:09 GMT
In this case, I have and mail stating that the outstanding balance on the previous loan was being held by FC (I had originally enquirer why the previous loan had not been repaid) while the loan team was reassessing the risk. Once they had decided to accept the two loans and had obviously paid out the withheld money, I pointed out that it was crazy to have the later loan at A+ and the previous loan at A and that the rating should be equalized. To my surprise this was to downgrade the second, rather than upgrade the first. Sounds like a balls up by FC as much as anything - but Q&A on loan specifically stated that the new loan would be used to pay off the first loan. The first loan was downgraded during this period with a note that it was to be repaid from a new loan - no ambiguity on the intention.
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Post by bracknellboy on Feb 13, 2014 21:06:07 GMT
In this case, I have and mail stating that the outstanding balance on the previous loan was being held by FC (I had originally enquirer why the previous loan had not been repaid) while the loan team was reassessing the risk. Once they had decided to accept the two loans and had obviously paid out the withheld money, I pointed out that it was crazy to have the later loan at A+ and the previous loan at A and that the rating should be equalized. Uhhh ? So they held an auction where it was explicitely stated (was it ? not just stated against the downgrade of the first loan ? Edit@ you've stated that was so on the Q&A) that the first loan would be paid off; they then found out the situation was different BEFORE releasing full funds from the second loan auction; and then released the funds anyway and downgraded the rating. IF that is the case (and I reiterate IF) then I modify my previous statement: not only was the auction held on a false premise but FC HAVE been complicit to the extent of allowing the loan to complete (full drawdown) AFTER being aware that was the case. In other words it was misrepresented and FC have allowed the money raised to be released despite knowing that to be the case. IF of course what you state is correct, lawyers please note. If another Mod feels that my post needs to be mod'd please shout.
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jm72
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Post by jm72 on Feb 13, 2014 21:45:18 GMT
Quote from first email back from FC "The borrower has decided not to settle their first loan and will continue with both loans; a comment has been added to loan 1141.
I understand that there has been a long delay. This is because the borrower expressed an interest in receiving the full amount of their second loan, as opposed to using a partial amount of the second loan to settle the first loan.
We therefore held back the portion of these funds that would have been used to settle the first loan while we assessed whether from a risk perspective we were happy to increase our exposure to them.
This risk band has now been reinstated and the borrower is up to date in their repayments."
Quote from second email from FC after querying the two different risk bands: "I apologise for the typing mistake I was waiting to hear back from the Underwriting team and not the Insolvency team.
You are correct in saying that the two loans should be at the same risk band.
Originally, in line with the expectation that the company was going to use the second loan to settle their first loan, the Underwriting team rated the second loan as A+, based on their latest assessment and the amount of exposure on the second loan.
However, because the company are now continuing to service both loans, our exposure to the company is now higher. The Underwriting team have subsequently taken the decision to amend the risk band for Loan 4573 to an A, in line with Loan 1141.
Unfortunately there was a slight delay of a few days between the risk band being reinstated on the first loan and the amendment on the second loan. This is not a standard procedure and therefore the Underwriting team took a few days to consider their decision.
A comment has been added to Loan 4573."
Details of the comments on each loan can be found on these loans as well as the Q&A which states 'Q. 10 Jan 2014 18:48 - Please note: this company has an existing Funding Circle loan. This loan will be used, in part, to clear the outstanding balance on the first loan. FC"
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Post by phlitb on Feb 13, 2014 21:45:23 GMT
I will quote and be damned, from the Q&A for 4573:
Funding Circle (Staff) Q. 10 Jan 2014 18:48 - Please note: this company has an existing Funding Circle loan. This loan will be used, in part, to clear the outstanding balance on the first loan. FC Awaiting Answer ...
Whichever way you cut it - misrepresentation, mistake or whatever, FC has a duty to its investors to rectify this situation. Personally I think 4573 should be annulled, everyone refunded and the loan re-listed with the corrected rating, and with the actual borrower intentions made clear. It would be business suicide for FC to force investors to take a hit on this.
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jm72
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Post by jm72 on Feb 13, 2014 21:48:53 GMT
And for completeness the text in the email which led to the second response: "Loan 4573 (rating A+) had a comment that it would be partially used to pay off loan 1141 (rating A). This was in the Q&A for Loan 4573 and I assume taken into consideration when setting the rating of loan 4573.
Now that loan 1141 is not being repaid (in contradication to information obviously provided at the time loan 4573 was applied for), please can you let me know if: 1) Loan 1141 will be upgraded to A+ (it doesn't make sense for two loans with the same company to have different ratings) 2) Loan 4573 was incorrectly rated as A+ (at which point there are issues with the auction process as this was performed on incorrect information provided by Funding Circle)."
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oldgrumpy
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Post by oldgrumpy on Feb 13, 2014 23:50:06 GMT
Glad I didn't have bids at MBR 6% A+ when it should have been 7.9% .... Perhaps FC should re-run the auction, or make up all bid repayments by +1.9% until the loan is paid off.
I wonder why there is no furore on Funding Circle's own forum about all this.
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min
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Post by min on Feb 14, 2014 7:05:38 GMT
Quote from first email back from FC " The borrower has decided not to settle their first loan and will continue with both loans; a comment has been added to loan 1141.
...
We therefore held back the portion of these funds that would have been used to settle the first loan while we assessed whether from a risk perspective we were happy to increase our exposure to them.
....
Fortunately I don't have any of this one. Rather confused by email above where FC say 'our exposure...'. Don't they mean our lender's exposure? They say the same in quote from 2nd email. Seems like they are treating lender's money as their own.
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Post by oldatheist on Feb 14, 2014 8:32:42 GMT
I love the comment that this downgrade does not affect our ability to sell our loan parts. Really! How can anyone selll at well below MBR. Every single loan part on this one is significantly below 7.9%.
FCs t&cs do allow them to change grades during the lifetime of the loan and I can understand that where the borrower experiences a significant change in their circumstances, but this one is entirely down to FC making a wrong call during the loan set up and they should take the hit not the lenders.
Hopefully this morning FCs inbox will be full of lender complaints on this one.
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blender
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Post by blender on Feb 14, 2014 8:38:02 GMT
Fortunately I don't have any of this one. Rather confused by email above where FC say 'our exposure...'. Don't they mean our lender's exposure? They say the same in quote from 2nd email. Seems like they are treating lender's money as their own. This has always been a problem. Setting aside the details of this case, which I do not have. The loan contracts are between a borrower and a consortium of lenders, not with FC, and it is not for FC to instruct a borrowr to repay on a contract with one set of lenders and to make a another contract with a second different set of lenders. If as a lender you have a first loan with a good interest rate FC would be working against you. It is always for the borrower to decide to repay a loan, and there is a risk that their plans change. But FC tend to look upon these borrowers as their customers and wish to develop a relationship which starts to look like a bank. I have always thought that all loans should be treated as entirely separate and that for a second loan the borrower should be good for the total exposure at any time, and if that means a top-up rather than a replacement then why not?
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Post by bracknellboy on Feb 14, 2014 14:40:07 GMT
Well quite. Yes I had understood that there was an issue in regard to whom the contracts are between. However, FC are in a sense acting on behalf of the lenders, and therefore it is entirely reasonable that their Ts and Cs allow them to take steps on behalf of the lending 'consortia'. It also seems clear form the correspondence that initially they did hold back a portion of the loan to pay back the first one: so the intent appears to have been for FC to act for the borrower by in effect moving the money from one group of lenders to the other. And anyway, if they are not going to do that then they should not be listing based on a credit rating which is contingent on a future possible action; or if a known event which they are facilitating is going to lead to a reassessment of the credit rating. And also: If they are not going to ensure that the second loan is used to pay off the first by virtue of FCs own actions, then they most certainly should not be posting statements in their own name which very much give that impression. e.g. the generic statement in such cases which is in FCs name stating: "This company has an existing Funding Circle loan. This loan will be used, in part, to clear the outstanding balance on the first loan. FC" If FC are not ensuring that then it is a rather misleading statement since it would be reasonably implied by the reader that this is a fact which is guaranteed by FC. Whereas it looks like it ought to read something like: "The borrower has stated that it is their intent to use part of htis loan...." which paints a rather different picture of where the required actions lie.
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ton27
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Post by ton27 on Feb 14, 2014 15:35:00 GMT
I have been fortunate in so much as I ruled out 4573 so have no exposure; however having read through this subject I hope the lenders cause such a furore that TC have to do something - it is really hard to believe they would be complicit in such a situation.
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