dan83
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Post by dan83 on May 7, 2016 10:02:38 GMT
Hi,
This is my 1st post!
I have small amount in funding circle and target loans in A+ & A, paying 7%+.
I prefare short term loans, so when a loan is repaid I look to lend money back out asap. Some times when I have some spare funds I have to look on the loan parts section.
I have been looking at the loan parts this morning and noticed there are loan parts for sale where the loan is yet to make its 1st payment.
My question is, what is the point of bidding on a loan, then putting the loan parts for sale straight away?
Thanks
Dan
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adrianc
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Post by adrianc on May 7, 2016 10:16:12 GMT
My question is, what is the point of bidding on a loan, then putting the loan parts for sale straight away? Three or four weeks-worth of interest, zero risk of default.
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dan83
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Post by dan83 on May 7, 2016 10:26:39 GMT
Oh right, never thought of it that way.
Properly makes abit of money if dealing with loads of money, I'm guessing not worth the hassle for small investors.
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adrianc
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Post by adrianc on May 7, 2016 10:37:31 GMT
Oh right, never thought of it that way. Properly makes abit of money if dealing with loads of money, I'm guessing not worth the hassle for small investors. As a percentage, the numbers work the same either way, and £20 parts sell much more easily than larger parts. The only question is whether the accrued interest minus the selling fee is worthwhile. For a £20 8% part, you earn about 13p/mo, minus 5p fee. Not, IMHO, worth it, especially since the risk of failure before the first payment should be very low. For a £20 18.2% E-band, minus 5p, with a higher risk, it's much more worthwhile... The first payment's usually fairly safe across all bands, not least because FC have treated failure there as fraud before and repayed in full - but there's various schools of thought about the second-to-sixth payments being the optimum churn time, depending on band. Obviously, the correct answer is to sell just before the first payment that's not made...
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registerme
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Post by registerme on May 7, 2016 10:56:28 GMT
Obviously, the correct answer is to sell just before the first payment that's not made... That's got a big belly laugh out of me . You should put it in your signature!
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blender
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Post by blender on May 7, 2016 12:10:23 GMT
There is always the risk of the loan being downgraded before the first repayment because of a 'credit event', for example a CCJ materialises to the great surprise of FC and the Borrower. In that case you can be locked into a loan which may pay for a while and then go bad. This sort of thing seems to be happening with some E loans - though I have not actually lost anything yet. Flipping before the first payment is not completely safe.
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Post by brianac on May 7, 2016 13:57:45 GMT
My question is, what is the point of bidding on a loan, then putting the loan parts for sale straight away? Three or four weeks-worth of interest, zero risk of default. Plus the buyer pays the 1% FC fee, so they effectively contribute to your cost of selling Ideal is to sell the day before interest is paid (all the interest (+ Premium if applicable) + no fee ) :-) Brian
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Post by GSV3MIaC on May 7, 2016 15:19:38 GMT
Obviously, the correct answer is to sell just before the first payment that's not made... That's got a big belly laugh out of me . You should put it in your signature! I've collected reams of statistics over several years and I still can't reliably make it happen (although I can demonstrate that the penalty for getting out too soon is significantly less than the penalty for not getting out until too late).
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adrianc
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Post by adrianc on May 7, 2016 15:51:06 GMT
That's got a big belly laugh out of me . You should put it in your signature! I've collected reams of statistics over several years and I still can't reliably make it happen (although I can demonstrate that the penalty for getting out too soon is significantly less than the penalty for not getting out until too late). Surely it's just taking the concept of giving up defaults one step further?
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