fasty
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Post by fasty on May 6, 2014 18:21:00 GMT
I can't quite get my head round this. Someone help me understand; I'm only a simple engineer:
FC have posted a comment against loan 5346 (of which I have parts), explaining "...First loan has been downgraded as it has been consolidated with their second loan..." (Presumably the "second loan" mentioned is the recent commercial mortgage loan.)
But the first loan 5346 has not been repaid; it's scheduled to continue repaying over the coming months. I'm still "exposed". So why is it downgraded? Simply to prevent me selling parts? I can't understand what FC are trying to implement here.
Thanks!
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blender
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Post by blender on May 6, 2014 18:33:20 GMT
Don't panic yet. I have some of the commercial loan and the reason that your loan has not yet been paid is that the commercial loan has not yet been drawn down. When it is you should be repaid. FC just having a little difficulty with tenses.
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fasty
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Post by fasty on May 6, 2014 18:49:12 GMT
OK, I see. Thanks blender!
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