justme
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Post by justme on Jul 14, 2017 19:03:22 GMT
If one is going for 12% ones and every 12th of them defaults there will be no return, diversification or not. So I suppose for p2p lending maths one would need to know what percentage of loans default
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macq
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Post by macq on Jul 14, 2017 21:13:08 GMT
If one is going for 12% ones and every 12th of them defaults there will be no return, diversification or not. So I suppose for p2p lending maths one would need to know what percentage of loans default may be my maths (its Friday and i have had a beer)but for example - £12000 as 12 equal loans and one defaults in year one the £11000 would give you a flat £1320 return(no reinvestment,amortized etc) more years go past you would make even less of a loss due to the interest on the 12th loan and get a bigger return While its good to know what percentage of loans default its still only an average which you could better or may be hit a bad spell.So still think a good spread is important
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justme
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Post by justme on Jul 14, 2017 22:12:05 GMT
Then your gain would equal £320 , ie 2.66%. If the platform charges something for holding the loan then even less. Do you think 2.66% is a worthwhile return considering risk hassle and lost opportunity ?
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angrysaveruk
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Post by angrysaveruk on Jul 14, 2017 23:25:06 GMT
Hi guys. Let us say you are investing somewhere. An example could be Bondora. What would, mathematically, be a number of loans for optimal risk allocation? 1000 different loans? 2000 different loans? Can we simply say that the more loans, the better, in terms of the risk you take as an investor? Mathematically speaking diversification is inversely related to the square root of N (assuming low correlations between investments). What this basically means is to halve the risk you have to Quadruple the number of investments. So if you have 1 investment to halve the risk you have to go to 4 investments. If you have 1000 investments to halve the risk you have to go to 4000 investments. You could definitely say the more loans the better, but there is a diminishing effect - and remember you are also diversifying the upside as well as the down side. I have always taken the view you are better investing in quality rather than quantity.
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justme
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Post by justme on Jul 14, 2017 23:39:47 GMT
Sorry for being obtuse - I find the topic fascinating and would like to understand- how increasing amount of loans is going to diminish risk of defaulting if let's say every 12th loan defaults? How having 400 loans instead of 100 going to half that risk? Could it be that your formula applies to a situation where an occurrence, risk of which we are trying to reduce happens extremely rarely? Or does it help only with not collecting all of those defaulted loans , ie reducing risk that out of those that one has more than 1/12th defaults? Let's say one loans on 10 loans at 10% with a rate of default 1 in 10. One ends up roughly with 0. If one loans on 100 loans one ends up with 0 anyway but the risk of one ending up with a loss because 2 out of 10 loans defaulted has been reduced by 2.5 times. Does it make sense? If it is correct then all this diversification is not going reduce risk further than the average however much one diversified.
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macq
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Post by macq on Jul 14, 2017 23:40:36 GMT
Then your gain would equal £320 , ie 2.66%. If the platform charges something for holding the loan then even less. Do you think 2.66% is a worthwhile return considering risk hassle and lost opportunity ? no not a worthwhile risk return(but still better then a cash ISA )but was based on your 12 loans with one default which is why most people have a lot more loans to spread the risk. Some one like Lending works spreads your money across a minimum of a hundred loans to get 4.8% on a 5 year account. Hopefully we should be able to run a self invested product on higher rate loans in the same way(assuming you hold the loans to term which many people do not)
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macq
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Post by macq on Jul 14, 2017 23:45:57 GMT
you would also think that diversification could be a good thing as its been practiced for decades by most pension & investment funds
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Post by explorep2p on Jul 15, 2017 8:22:23 GMT
Sorry for being obtuse - I find the topic fascinating and would like to understand- how increasing amount of loans is going to diminish risk of defaulting if let's say every 12th loan defaults? How having 400 loans instead of 100 going to half that risk? Could it be that your formula applies to a situation where an occurrence, risk of which we are trying to reduce happens extremely rarely? Or does it help only with not collecting all of those defaulted loans , ie reducing risk that out of those that one has more than 1/12th defaults? Let's say one loans on 10 loans at 10% with a rate of default 1 in 10. One ends up roughly with 0. If one loans on 100 loans one ends up with 0 anyway but the risk of one ending up with a loss because 2 out of 10 loans defaulted has been reduced by 2.5 times. Does it make sense? If it is correct then all this diversification is not going reduce risk further than the average however much one diversified. Hi Justme You are thinking about this absolutely correctly. Diversification does not reduce the underlying default risk of any loan, or change the expected return profile. It reduces the risk that your losses from defaults will exceed a certain level (i.e if you buy a single loan you could have a 100% loss, that's impossible if you have 1,000 loans). The real benefits of diversification come from spreading your investments across loans in different countries, different lenders, and different types of loans (secured, unsecured, buyback guaranteed etc). It still doesn't reduce the default risk on any individual loan, but it protects against a huge impact if a lender/platform blows up, or a single country has major economic problems etc.
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justme
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Post by justme on Jul 15, 2017 9:03:36 GMT
Then your gain would equal £320 , ie 2.66%. If the platform charges something for holding the loan then even less. Do you think 2.66% is a worthwhile return considering risk hassle and lost opportunity ? no not a worthwhile risk return(but still better then a cash ISA )but was based on your 12 loans with one default which is why most people have a lot more loans to spread the risk. Some one like Lending works spreads your money across a minimum of a hundred loans to get 4.8% on a 5 year account. Hopefully we should be able to run a self invested product on higher rate loans in the same way(assuming you hold the loans to term which many people do not) Having more loans to spread the risk would only work if default rate was lower than 1/12th.
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yangmills
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Post by yangmills on Jul 15, 2017 9:05:37 GMT
Sorry for being obtuse - I find the topic fascinating and would like to understand- how increasing amount of loans is going to diminish risk of defaulting if let's say every 12th loan defaults? How having 400 loans instead of 100 going to half that risk? Could it be that your formula applies to a situation where an occurrence, risk of which we are trying to reduce happens extremely rarely? Or does it help only with not collecting all of those defaulted loans , ie reducing risk that out of those that one has more than 1/12th defaults? Let's say one loans on 10 loans at 10% with a rate of default 1 in 10. One ends up roughly with 0. If one loans on 100 loans one ends up with 0 anyway but the risk of one ending up with a loss because 2 out of 10 loans defaulted has been reduced by 2.5 times. Does it make sense? If it is correct then all this diversification is not going reduce risk further than the average however much one diversified. This is not specific to loans. Take a simple two-asset portfolio (could be bonds, stocks etc). The expected return on that portfolio R(e) is R(e)= x(a)r(a) + x(b)r(b) where x(a) =percentage invested in asset a r(a) = expected return of asset a x(b) = percentage invested in asset b r(b) = expected return of asset b The expected return volatility of that portfolio, σ(p) is given by σ(p)²= x(a)²σ(a)² + x(b)²σ(b)² + 2x(a)x(b)σ(a)σ(b)ρ(ab) where σ(a) = Standard deviation of asset a σ(b) = Standard deviation of asset b ρ(ab) = Correlation between assets a and b To be clear σ(n)² is the variance of asset n. The term σ(a)σ(b)ρ(ab) is termed the covariance of the portfolio. Example: take two equally weighted assets, with expected returns of 12% and 6%, return volatility of 12% and 6% Set x(a) =50%, x(b) = 50%, r(a) = 12%, r(b) = 6%, σ(a) = 12%, σ(b) = 6% The expected return R(e) = 9.00% If the correlation is 100%, then the expected portfolio return volatility σ(p) = 9.00%. If the correlation is 0%, then σ(p) = 6.71%. If the correlation is -100%, then σ(p) = 3.00%. So to reduce your portfolio return volatility, you want to find assets with as low a return correlation as possible. The correlation is far more important than the number of assets. You can add as many assets as you like but if the return correlation is 90% you will get little diversification benefit. Better to find a few uncorrelated assets.
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justme
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Post by justme on Jul 15, 2017 9:13:48 GMT
Makes sense. I will try to use the above the sell usefulness of maths to my daughter .
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registerme
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Post by registerme on Jul 15, 2017 9:40:08 GMT
Makes sense. I will try to use the above the sell usefulness of maths to my daughter . I spent some time last night talking to a six year old girl called Zoe, who went star gazing last month on the South Downs. We went from there being 1 of her, to 100 in her school, to 7,000,000 in London, to 70,000,000 in the UK, to 7,000,000,000 people on the planet, to 100,000,000,000 stars "like the sun" in the Milky Way, to their being 100,000,000,000 galaxies in the universe "like the Milky Way" that we can see. She was packed her off to bed with wonder in her eyes .
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angrysaveruk
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Post by angrysaveruk on Jul 15, 2017 10:02:47 GMT
Sorry for being obtuse - I find the topic fascinating and would like to understand- how increasing amount of loans is going to diminish risk of defaulting if let's say every 12th loan defaults? How having 400 loans instead of 100 going to half that risk? Could it be that your formula applies to a situation where an occurrence, risk of which we are trying to reduce happens extremely rarely? Or does it help only with not collecting all of those defaulted loans , ie reducing risk that out of those that one has more than 1/12th defaults? Let's say one loans on 10 loans at 10% with a rate of default 1 in 10. One ends up roughly with 0. If one loans on 100 loans one ends up with 0 anyway but the risk of one ending up with a loss because 2 out of 10 loans defaulted has been reduced by 2.5 times. Does it make sense? If it is correct then all this diversification is not going reduce risk further than the average however much one diversified. it is not to do with whether an individual loan defaults but the total number of loans. If you flip a coin 10 times you expect to get 5 heads and 5 tails. But you could get lucky and get 10 heads or unlucky an get 0 heads - assuming heads is a win. if you play the game 1000 times you expect to get 500 heads however it is very unlikely you will get 1000 heads or 0 heads. this is basically diversification. so if you have a choice between betting 100 pounds on one flip of a coin or betting 25 pounds over 4 flips of a coin the risk or spread of outcomes measured by a statistic called the standard deviation is halved.
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Post by chielamangus on Jul 15, 2017 10:13:49 GMT
Are you sure her eyes had not just glazed over with all those unrelatable numbers ?
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agent69
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Post by agent69 on Jul 15, 2017 10:37:30 GMT
Makes sense. I will try to use the above the sell usefulness of maths to my daughter . to 100,000,000,000 stars "like the sun" in the Milky Way, to their being 100,000,000,000 galaxies in the universe "like the Milky Way" that we can see. I think the conventional wisdom is over 100 billion stars in our galaxy and over 100 billion galaxies in the universe (most of which are not visible). The universe is seriously big; in laymans terms the number of stars out there is about the same as the number of grains of sand on planet earth
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